I don’t know the term the court uses, but they look to history to establish
If something that may not be written into law was still customary under English/common law. So when looking back at American history the question of was abortion “customarily” legal in such a way as to be culturally accepted. So what I’m saying is that it’s quite circular in logic to allow the court to present a decision, not review the matter for some time, then claim the time that’s elapsed between reviews is itself the cultural precedent.
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In response to this post by Seattle .Hoo)
Posted: 02/18/2023 at 6:06PM