He could have easily been unaware that his 3 year probation for a 1996
felony wasn’t completed IMO. He also could have known. There isn’t enough information IMO in this article to make me say, this guy’s guilty. I see the judge applying a “should have known” standard here and wonder if that was correct?
It also looks like these allegedly illegal votes started in 2008? What’s the statute of limitations on this “crime?”
To me this is cut from the same cloth as the Texas woman’s case. Just because this guy’s white, a Republican, and evidently a bit of an asshole doesn’t make his conviction any less unjust than hers (IMO, again.)
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In response to this post by WaxHoo)
Posted: 03/30/2024 at 2:42PM